Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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TimW
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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PlatinumZealot wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 14:10
I told you guys but you wouldn't listen!!

Leave the loop-hole finding to the veterans OK? :roll:


https://www.motorsport.com/f1/news/what ... /10645992/
The regulations only stated that the application of brake pad force shall be equal, nothing about the release of brake pressure. Quite an obvious loophole in hindsight, so why would teams not have been exploiting it?

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FW17
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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PlatinumZealot wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 14:10
I told you guys but you wouldn't listen!!

Leave the loop-hole finding to the veterans OK? :roll:


https://www.motorsport.com/f1/news/what ... /10645992/
So FIA signed a NDA and another NDA not to talk about the NDA

cheeRS
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Dunlay wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 16:13
chrisc90 wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 13:26


I dare bet there’s a few ‘experienced’ journalists (and some posters on forums) sitting with a bit of egg slapped on their faces now.

FIA confirmed no team was using such device
Did FIA confirm what was the problem with Ferrari in 2019? Do we know when was the last time FIA confirmed about the illegality that a team has been up to? Whether it was Mercedes oil burning, Ferrari manipulating fuel flow or flexi wings or flexi floors, FIA never came out and said a team did that. I don't expect them to say who was using asymmetric braking in this case either.
Totally agree and it's a fair point.

By the way, what kind of vague answer is that anyway? "There is no truth that any team was using such a system"... What does that even mean? Something lost in translation? No truth that ANY team was using it, but there is truth that ONE of them was? Does it mean that they suspected a team was using it but didn't have evidence/truth so they just banned it instead? They could have slammed the door shut on this, but instead used that phrasing... strange isn't it?

-Australia brake failure
-Turn in problems
-Merc "gaining a ton of pace" with respect to RB
-McLaren "gaining a ton of pace" with respect to RB
-RB losing a lot of pace compared with top teams

Where there's smoke there's fire; otherwise this is one heck of a coincidence.
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PlatinumZealot
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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FIA writes to teams / calls them to stewards when there is an action to clamp down on loop holes.

For example with DAS :

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source= ... SDFkkFdoPW
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ispano6
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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cheeRS wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 19:48
Dunlay wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 16:13
chrisc90 wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 13:26


I dare bet there’s a few ‘experienced’ journalists (and some posters on forums) sitting with a bit of egg slapped on their faces now.

FIA confirmed no team was using such device
Did FIA confirm what was the problem with Ferrari in 2019? Do we know when was the last time FIA confirmed about the illegality that a team has been up to? Whether it was Mercedes oil burning, Ferrari manipulating fuel flow or flexi wings or flexi floors, FIA never came out and said a team did that. I don't expect them to say who was using asymmetric braking in this case either.
Totally agree and it's a fair point.

By the way, what kind of vague answer is that anyway? "There is no truth that any team was using such a system"... What does that even mean? Something lost in translation? No truth that ANY team was using it, but there is truth that ONE of them was? Does it mean that they suspected a team was using it but didn't have evidence/truth so they just banned it instead? They could have slammed the door shut on this, but instead used that phrasing... strange isn't it?

-Australia brake failure
-Turn in problems
-Merc "gaining a ton of pace" with respect to RB
-McLaren "gaining a ton of pace" with respect to RB
-RB losing a lot of pace compared with top teams

Where there's smoke there's fire; otherwise this is one heck of a coincidence.
Newey no longer attending any races too. A coincidence?

basti313
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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TimW wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 16:27
PlatinumZealot wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 14:10
I told you guys but you wouldn't listen!!

Leave the loop-hole finding to the veterans OK? :roll:


https://www.motorsport.com/f1/news/what ... /10645992/
The regulations only stated that the application of brake pad force shall be equal, nothing about the release of brake pressure. Quite an obvious loophole in hindsight, so why would teams not have been exploiting it?
This is a point that I am still struggling with. Not releasing similarly means different force on the brake...the rule does not have a "when pushed" or so limitation.
Thinking about it more, the easiest implementation would be to use different brake pads. Playing with a bit less brake force vs. stronger turning...not sure if this is an approach still.
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Andi76
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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AR3-GP wrote:
17 Aug 2024, 14:59
scuderiabrandon wrote:
17 Aug 2024, 09:26
To me that's still sounds like torque vectoring, but maybe that is my lack of understanding showing.

Anyway, sending more braking force to the inside wheel to induce rotation seems really hard to do. The inner wheel will always be completely unloaded, meaning lock-ups become a big problem. For it to work as intended, you'd probably require ABS.
Coulthard pointed out the same thing about the Mclaren from 1997 and you could hear it in onboards like the 1997 Suzuka qualy lap.

“We had to learn how to work with it, because you had to accelerate while you braked, otherwise you just locked the wheel.
https://www.mclaren.com/racing/latest-n ... l-3153421/

There's no evidence of this in the telemetry of the Red Bull.

A car with this kind of system would also need to have larger brakes, more brake cooling, and more fuel to account for all of the losses associated with deliberately dragging brakes and blending throttle and brakes.

I'm finding it difficult to see a clear picture. I'm eager to see the discussion in Zandvoort.
Such a system obviously does not require larger brakes. Neither the 1997 McLaren nor the 1998 McLaren, which were proven to have this system, had larger brakes. And back then, the cars were much closer to the limit as far as brakes were concerned (defective brake disks such as Frentzen's in Australia in 1997, etc.). In the same way, neither the 97 nor the 98 McLaren had ABS. McLarens System back then worked with a switch to select either rear brake according to the direction of the corner, which they were then able to apply to either turn the car in under power (by braking the inner wheel) or prevent inner wheel spin when accelerating out of a corner. Breaking of one rear wheel under power will reduce the torque delivered to the wheel on that side and increase it to the opposite side via the open differential. The net result is a turning moment imparted to the car, which steers it toward the side of the breaked wheel.

But anyway, would it be surprising if Red Bull had a similar system to the McLaren of 1997 and 1998? I don't think so, because ultimately it would only be logical for Adrian Newey to have noticed when reading the 2022 regulations that there was a gray area that a car he designed had already exploited in 1997 and 1998 (even though the McLaren"fiddle-break" system itself was invented by Steve Nichols, not by Newey). Also, in the late 90's Honda invented a system called the "direct yaw control system" which was installed in some of its road cars such as the Prelude R. In this system, the speed ratio between the inner and outer driven wheels was fixed, with the outer wheel turning faster. Two planetary gears determined the ratio, and depending on the direction of rotation, the appropriate set of one clutch was engaged. In a straight line, both clutches were open. A computer controlled the entire system automatically. This was definitely a "double clutch" gearbox, as there were two additional clutches that took over the drive from the engine in addition to the normal clutch. Honda had also developed an four-wheel drive version, in which the ratio between the front and rear wheels was similarly fixed when cornering (the speed of the rear wheels was increased to provide more torque). So Honda has a lot of know-how in this area as well, and if you take this system and allow the clutches to slip, a degree of control over the speed difference is possible. Only one gear shaft is needed now, but it has to be driven at the mean wheel speed and geared identically with both half shafts in a slightly different ratio to provide slip at the clutch....

Ultimately, these are mind games based on technology that is over 25 years old and with which Honda has a lot of experience and when studying the 2022 rules - it would be obvious to come to the conclusion that there is a gray area here, i think. And with today's technology and 25 years of experience in this field... there are enough possibilities, e.g. an additional shaft that is driven by the final drive gear and is geared to the output shafts of the differential in such a way that it tries to drive both shafts at a slightly different speed than the differential. Two clutches decouple the gear from the drive of the output shafts and thus prevent the entire system from seizing up. However, if one of the clutches is partially engaged, torque is transmitted to this output shaft, increasing its speed, with the opposite shaft being proportionally slowed down by the differential. The modulation of the clutches allows the torque distribution to be controlled, and the transmission and clutch controls are designed to increase the speed of the outer wheel while slowing the inner wheel. The lay shaft can either increase the speed or slow down the output shafts, with the clutch strategy designed accordingly. The gear ratio and clutch characteristics must be selected to provide the required degree of control. The result is a dual clutch system that is simpler than Honda's and provides a means of controlling the speed differential of the output shafts.

Such a system requires lateral and longitudinal acceleration inputs to determine the control of the clutches. I don't think these inputs are allowed in an electronically controlled differential in Formula 1. They would therefore have to work purely hydromechanically. The semi-active suspension system from Automot Products Ltd. that Williams initially adapted was a purely hydro-mechanical system before Williams converted it to computer-controlled electro-hydraulics. And that was over 30 years ago! It used pendulums that drove hydraulic valves to signal lateral and longitudinal acceleration. Such a system is perfectly feasible, even if it is not ideal in this age of electronics. Slipping clutches, which transmit a considerable amount of torque over a long period of time, would have to be cooled and therefore operated with oil. Porsche has used such a system in the four-wheel drive Porsche 959 to control torque distribution to the front and rear. Several sintered metal clutch disks running in oil performed this task. So, the entire technology for the complete control of torque distribution on the rear axle of a Formula 1 car has long, been available within the technical regulations (Even if I could be wrong because I don't know all the technical regulations of the last 20 years by heart), i think. By calling the individually actuated rear brakes of such a system "clutches", incorporating them into the gearbox mixed with the differential and actuating them automatically, I think you would have bypassed the regulations on brakes, driver aids and rear axle steering and would have been one way such a system could have looked (and maybe how "this team" actually done it) although with today's technology there would probably be quite different possibilities that I can't even think of for lack of knowledge, but either way - the effect is almost exactly the same. With the current rule change, the FIA is finally closing this possibility and I think for good reason. Because I would be surprised if someone hadn't noticed this gray area. And I think the people who are predestined for this are undoubtedly those who already used such a system in F1 over 25 years ago or who have many years of experience in this regard with their road cars. And Newey (MP4-13) and Honda are at the forefront of this. Ultimately, the technology has been known for just as long, you just have to recognize the grey area and be able to implement it within this grey area.

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PlatinumZealot
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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That's a lovely essay you wrote there, but there is no grey area. :idea:

Havw you done any calculations on the master cylinder displacment of an F1 car?

Have you calculated the viscous flows around this inertial plug valve to find it's non-steady state response to the car as it turns?

Now calculate the residual brake line pressure and flow imbalance from right and left brake and then tell me if this pressure difference (if any!) can substantially brake the inner wheel..

And with all of the above.... How does it bypass the regulations (it cannot! :idea: :wink:).
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Mattchu
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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PlatinumZealot wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 18:32
That's a lovely essay you wrote there, but there is no grey area. :idea:
Come on, you as much as anyone should know that in Formula 1 there is nearly always a "grey area."

p.s. Not blaming anyone of doing anything!

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PlatinumZealot
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Mattchu wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 20:42
PlatinumZealot wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 18:32
That's a lovely essay you wrote there, but there is no grey area. :idea:
Come on, you as much as anyone should know that in Formula 1 there is nearly always a "grey area."

p.s. Not blaming anyone of doing anything!
Because the clamping force is what is monitored tricks cannot be played using the calipers.
You are probably better off playing with the differential or having the rear brake disks attached via a clutch to the wheel hub, but there is probably a rule preventing the latter.
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Wil992
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Mattchu wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 20:42

Come on, you as much as anyone should know that in Formula 1 there is nearly always a "grey area."

p.s. Not blaming anyone of doing anything!
“11.1.2 The brake system must be design so that within each circuit, the force applied to the brake pads are the same magnitude and act as opposing pairs on a given brake disc”

There are 2 circuits, one front one rear, so the rear brakes are both within one circuit, by regulation.

So a system that somehow managed to sometimes apply different force to the pads within the same circuit would absolutely break this rule. It’s unfathomable that there is some interpretation of this that would allow different force to be applied on one side, even if it you managed to design a system that could do that.

If a team had been applying different forces to each set of rear brake pads at any point they are straightforwardly breaking the rules, just as sure as if they had an underweight car, for example.

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Big Tea
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Wil992 wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 23:13
Mattchu wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 20:42

Come on, you as much as anyone should know that in Formula 1 there is nearly always a "grey area."

p.s. Not blaming anyone of doing anything!
“11.1.2 The brake system must be design so that within each circuit, the force applied to the brake pads are the same magnitude and act as opposing pairs on a given brake disc”

There are 2 circuits, one front one rear, so the rear brakes are both within one circuit, by regulation.

So a system that somehow managed to sometimes apply different force to the pads within the same circuit would absolutely break this rule. It’s unfathomable that there is some interpretation of this that would allow different force to be applied on one side, even if it you managed to design a system that could do that.

If a team had been applying different forces to each set of rear brake pads at any point they are straightforwardly breaking the rules, just as sure as if they had an underweight car, for example.
By "force applied", does this cover the cross sectional area of the cylinder or pads?
The same force applied to a smaller or larger area would give less or more retardation.
Opens a whole new can of worms in the trickery department though, but they are clever guys if it is worth having they can find a way.

I also wondered if it is possible to "pulse" it via the BBW system. Quite possible no one has done anything but I love these theories Lol
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Vanja #66
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Wil992 wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 23:13
“11.1.2 The brake system must be design so that within each circuit, the force applied to the brake pads are the same magnitude and act as opposing pairs on a given brake disc”

There are 2 circuits, one front one rear, so the rear brakes are both within one circuit, by regulation.

So a system that somehow managed to sometimes apply different force to the pads within the same circuit would absolutely break this rule. It’s unfathomable that there is some interpretation of this that would allow different force to be applied on one side, even if it you managed to design a system that could do that.

If a team had been applying different forces to each set of rear brake pads at any point they are straightforwardly breaking the rules, just as sure as if they had an underweight car, for example.
That particular rule is related to just one disc, meaning both pads at the same disc need to apply the same force to that one disc. If they don't, you can basically break the disc.

Regarding a single axle, you can apply the same force on both discs but apply it as a sine function (to make it a continuous force exertion) with different frequencies and you effectively introduce steering by braking. I don't think it was legal even before this rule rewording, but in principle you can circumvent that kind of wording. Someone probably already suggested it here or elsewhere on the forum
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TimW
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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basti313 wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 10:12
TimW wrote:
20 Aug 2024, 16:27


The regulations only stated that the application of brake pad force shall be equal, nothing about the release of brake pressure. Quite an obvious loophole in hindsight, so why would teams not have been exploiting it?
This is a point that I am still struggling with. Not releasing similarly means different force on the brake...the rule does not have a "when pushed" or so limitation.
Application can be read as the process of applying, the phase of ramping up te force. So you apply, hold, and release the brake force, and the rule is only applicable( :wink: ) to the application phase.

Restrict the return flow from one caliper and you have brake steering on release, during the turn in phase. Make that restriction somehow be influenced be the lateral load on the suspension and it is directional.

Wil992
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Re: Braking regulation change - "asymmetric braking torques for a given axle is forbidden"

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Vanja #66 wrote:
22 Aug 2024, 08:53
Wil992 wrote:
21 Aug 2024, 23:13
“11.1.2 The brake system must be design so that within each circuit, the force applied to the brake pads are the same magnitude and act as opposing pairs on a given brake disc”
That particular rule is related to just one disc, meaning both pads at the same disc need to apply the same force to that one disc. If they don't, you can basically break the disc.
I don’t see your logic here.

The regulation says “ within each circuit, the force applied to the brake pads are the same magnitude”. The circuits are defined in 11.1.1 but basically mean front and rear brakes. So, the force applied to both rear (ie all 4 pads) brakes has to be the same. It’s not just referring to the opposing pads of one disc.

Likewise if you have some damping of the release of pressure that means there is a point in time where one brake in the circuit is applying greater force than the other, which is specifically outlawed by 11.1.1.

Also, 11.1.4 prevents any modulation of the brakes by any means other than direct physical input of the driver

My assumption re the recent rule change is that it’s now illegal to do something like change the contact area of the pad, as I guess that was theoretically possible with the old wording? You could use the same force but with a different pad contact area to achieve different retardation on each side, but now it specifically references the retardation rather then just the force applied.