Continuing a discussion that's been held on the Merc team threads....
bhall II wrote:
The concept is irrelevant.
An adverse pressure gradient is a region where static pressure increases in the direction of travel. This is problematic, because air would much rather flow from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, as areas of varying pressure will always seek to equalize.
Ultimately, that means air flow along an adverse pressure gradient steadily loses dynamic pressure - the kinetic energy of the air flow itself - as it overcomes the effects of the adverse pressure gradient. If boundary layer flow along an adverse pressure gradient loses too much dynamic pressure, it will separate. By separate, I mean it will reverse itself, as areas of varying pressure will
always seek to equalize...
http://i.imgur.com/nuUvXQU.jpg
Exaggerated for effect
If that were to happen on a Formula One car as described in the Motorsport article, the size of the car's wake would be increased significantly, which would increase drag significantly, because it would create the mother of all bottlenecks. It's a senseless outcome.
And this is supposed to happen to RB12 as a drag-reduction strategy? After the severity of the rear wing's adverse pressure gradient has been minimized due to reduced rake from aero loading? In other words, the senseless outcome is supposed to occur magically?
http://i.imgur.com/2ya6ZUY.jpg
Less rake = lower AoA
As my friends in New Jersey would say, "Get the --- outta here!" (The idea presented actually comes closer to explaining how rear wings create downforce.)
If you have a pet, ask for its thoughts on the subject. The answer you receive will make exactly as much sense as what was written in that article.
EDITS: clarity
So what is the position then Ben?
What are you suggesting regards the drag of the Red Bull vs less steeply raked cars such as Ferrari and Mercedes?
Red Bull would have us believe that their lower top speeds is a direct result of a less powerful(up to 60bhp according to Horner...) PU.
I want to be as clear as possible why I'm struggling with some of the theories floating about.
It is interesting because I find these assumptions by Red Bull to be complete horseshite. And my reasoning on this comes from laptime data and GPS data from previous venues.
A bit of data I've collected to compare 2 separate venues with different demands on the car. Spa v Hungaroring.
The lap at Spa is 26 seconds and 2.6km longer than Hungary.
The importance of engine power is far more pronounced at a track like Spa as it has more time spent at full throttle.
33% of time is spent at full throttle around Hungaroring compared to 57% at Spa, a full 24% difference.
At Hungary, a car less dependant on overall power in comparison to Spa, the difference was 0.320 seconds Mercedes to Red Bull.
Yet at Spa, we see the difference shrink by more than 50% to 0.149.
Red Bull would probably put the difference down to engine power, Mercedes having a 3kp/h advantage with Rosberg, with Hamilton level pegging Ric. However Verstappen was 1.5 Km/h an hour down on Ric, and still beat him in Qualy by over 0.3 seconds.
http://grandepremio.uol.com.br/f1/notic ... gica-de-f1
So they're set up differently, however marginal.
Now where can anyone draw the conclusion from this data, that Mercedes engine is so superior that it is the raison d'etre of their success?
And how can a gap shrink when the importance of this supposed advantage increase?
And how is rake in anyway an explanation that an inferior engine can decrease a gap when the reliance upon said engine increases?